It is stated in the Phase Estimation algorithm in Page 222, Quantum Computation and Quantum Information by Nielsen and Chuang that
It seems to say that taking the inverse Quantum Fourier transform of the state gives $$ |\phi_1\cdots\phi_t\rangle $$
That means the state $\frac{1}{2^{t/2}}(|0\rangle+e^{2\pi i0.\phi_t}|1\rangle)(|0\rangle+e^{2\pi i0.\phi_{t-1}\phi_t}|1\rangle)\cdots (|0\rangle+e^{2\pi i0.\phi_{1}\cdots\phi_t}|1\rangle)$ is the Quantum Fourier transform of the state $|\phi_1\cdots\phi_t\rangle$.
But in the section of the derivation of the QFT it is given
As per Eq. 5.5 to 5.10 $$\frac{(|0\rangle+e^{2\pi i0.\phi_t}|1\rangle)(|0\rangle+e^{2\pi i0.\phi_{t-1}\phi_t}|1\rangle)\cdots (|0\rangle+e^{2\pi i0.\phi_{1}\cdots\phi_t}|1\rangle)}{2^{t/2}}=\frac{1}{2^{t/2}}\sum_{k=0}^{2^t-1}e^{2\pi i\phi k/\color{red}{2^t}}|k\rangle$$ But equations 5.20-5.21-5.22 seem to consider it is equal to $\frac{1}{2^{t/2}}\sum_{k=0}^{2^t-1}e^{2\pi i\phi k}|k\rangle$. How do I make sense of this ?