Does the binomial formula $(a+b)^n=\sum_i C_n^ia^ib^{n-i}$ still work when $n$ is replaced by operator $\hat{n}$(an operator), where $a$ and $b$ are numbers? Since it's not the normal binomial formula mentioned in a lot of cases, and also can't be easily explained by the operator function, which is a definition in a Taylor-expansion way. So, does the formula work right? It seems okay to me.
Edit $C_{\hat{n}}^i$ will stands for $\frac{1}{i!}\hat{n}(\hat{n}-I)(\hat{n}-2I)...(\hat{n}-iI)$, and the original problem I met is to simplify the expression
$$ \begin{align} \sum_{l=0}^\infty l\frac{(1-\eta)^l}{l!}(a^\dagger)^l\eta^{\hat{n}}a^l \tag{1} \end{align} $$ into $$ \begin{align} (1-\eta)\hat{n} ,\tag{2}\end{align}$$ where $\hat{n}$ is photon number operator, $a^\dagger$ is the creation operator, $a$ is the annihilation operator, $\eta$ and $l$ are real numbers. My way is to think about the expectation value of eq. (1) with respect to the Fock state $|n\rangle$, so the sum over $\infty$ will become the sum over $n$, and we can have real number to be calculated and use the calculation skill where we used in the expectation value of binomial distribution, i.e., $\sum_{i=0}^n iC_n^ia^i(1-a)^{n-i}=na$.
But I think if we can use $C_\hat{n}^i=\frac{1}{i!}\hat{n}(\hat{n}-I)(\hat{n}-2I)...(\hat{n}-iI)$, then the formula $(a+b)^{\hat{n}}=\sum_i C_{\hat{n}}^ia^ib^{\hat{n}-iI}$ should be reasonable. I know Taylor expansion to treat $a+b$ together as a number can get the polynomial form of operator $\hat{n}$, but can the formula with binomial expansion alike get the same result while different form? Anyway, the original motivation for me to do so is to simplify eq. (1) into eq. (2).