2
$\begingroup$

Prove that if

$\text{Proj}_{M_1}\text{Proj}_{M_2}= \text{Proj}_{M_2}\text{Proj}_{M_1}$ then

$\text{Pr}(\text{span}[M_1, M_2]) = \text{Pr}(M_1) + \text{Pr}(M_2) − \text{Pr}(M_1 \cap M_2)$.

In the case where the projection operators are non-commutative, I understand how to show that the above formula is actually false. However, I am unsure of how the commutativity of the projectors implies the above equation. I have included an image from the text to provide the definitions of $M_1$ and $M_2$.

Image from text to provide definitions

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$
  1. It follows that $M_1$ is invariant subspace of operator $\text{Proj}_{M_2}$. Indeed, if $v \in M_1$ then $$\text{Proj}_{M_1}\text{Proj}_{M_2}v=\text{Proj}_{M_2}\text{Proj}_{M_1}v = \text{Proj}_{M_2}v,$$ so $$\text{Proj}_{M_1}(\text{Proj}_{M_2}v) = \text{Proj}_{M_2}v,$$ but this can happen only if $\text{Proj}_{M_2}v \in M_1$.

  2. Similarly, it can be proved that $M_1^{\perp}$ is invariant for $\text{Proj}_{M_2}$, and also $M_2,M_2^{\perp}$ are invariant for $\text{Proj}_{M_1}$ by symmetry.

  3. Since $M_1$ is invariant for $\text{Proj}_{M_2}$ and $\text{Proj}_{M_2}$ has two eigenspaces $M_2,M_2^{\perp}$, then $M_1$ can be split into $$ M_1 = (M_1 \cap M_2) \oplus (M_1 \cap M_2^{\perp}) $$ Similarly, $$ M_2 = (M_2 \cap M_1) \oplus (M_2 \cap M_1^{\perp}) $$

  4. Now, clearly, $(M_1 \cap M_2^{\perp}) \perp (M_2 \cap M_1^{\perp})$, so $$ M_1 + M_2 = (M_1 \cap M_2) \oplus (M_1 \cap M_2^{\perp}) \oplus (M_2 \cap M_1^{\perp}), $$ hence $$ \text{Pr}(M_1+M_2) = \text{Pr}(M_1 \cap M_2) + \text{Pr}(M_1 \cap M_2^{\perp}) + \text{Pr}(M_2 \cap M_1^{\perp}) = $$ $$ = \text{Pr}(M_1) + \text{Pr}(M_2) - \text{Pr}(M_1 \cap M_2) $$

A more general case is discussed here https://quantumcomputing.stackexchange.com/a/6469/5870

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you! Is $M_1$ invariant under $Proj_{M_2}$ because the operator projects onto a space with basis vectors $|0>$ and $|1>$ and $M_1$ is a space that has only $|0>$ as a basis? $\endgroup$
    – imconfused
    Commented Apr 12, 2020 at 18:22
  • $\begingroup$ No, my answer is general. Also for $M_1, M_2$ from that exercise there will be no commutativity of projectors. $\endgroup$
    – Danylo Y
    Commented Apr 12, 2020 at 19:01

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.