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John Wong's user avatar
John Wong's user avatar
John Wong
  • Member for 4 years
  • Last seen more than 3 years ago
  • Beijing, China
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Why QAOA with $p \rightarrow \infty $ gives the optimal solution?
Thanks! I guess the time evolution under $H(t)$ is $U(t) = \exp\left(-i/h \int_0^t H(s) ds \right)$. How can we show that $U(t)$ can be approximated by alternating $\exp(H_B)$ and $\exp(H_C)$?
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A question about Grover's paper "Fixed-Point Quantum Search"
Described the question specifically in reference to the arXiv version
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