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May 2, 2023 at 12:35 history edited Mark Spinelli CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 2, 2023 at 12:31 comment added Mark Spinelli Yeah, I think you're right; sorry for my carelessness. $\pi_i(G)$ is meant to be another adjacency matrix having the $i$th permutation applied to $G$. We can't disentangle the permutation from the output of the permutation. I'll edit it again for clarity.
May 2, 2023 at 6:10 comment added Andrew Baker I just noticed this: in your second equation, shouldn't the state be $\frac{1}{\sqrt{N!}} \sum_{i = 1}^{N!} | \pi_i \rangle | \pi_i (G) \rangle$ ? Because $\pi_i$ is the input, not $G$.
Apr 29, 2023 at 18:29 vote accept Andrew Baker
Apr 29, 2023 at 18:29 comment added Andrew Baker Oh, I get it now. We need $N!$ qubit states, and thus need $log(N!)$ qubits. Because $O(N!) = O(N log N)$, this is "efficient." (efficient meaning polynomial number of qubits).
Apr 29, 2023 at 18:08 comment added Mark Spinelli You’re right, my normalization factor was wrong. If there are N vertices there are up to N! different adjacency matrices.
Apr 29, 2023 at 18:06 history edited Mark Spinelli CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 29, 2023 at 17:29 comment added Andrew Baker Doesn’t your method require $N!$ qubits though? The $N$ I am referring to is the number of nodes of the graph. Shouldn’t this be disallowed, as $N!$ is not efficient?
Apr 29, 2023 at 16:49 history answered Mark Spinelli CC BY-SA 4.0