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Feb 17, 2021 at 18:18 comment added Adam Zalcman Maybe, but I can't say for sure without seeing the details. The matter of impossibility of expressing one type of formula as another type of formula is a very different type of problem than the matter of finding a way to express one formula as another. Please submit another question for this. It sounds interesting.
Feb 17, 2021 at 11:09 comment added Shashaank The context requires that the probability distribution under suitable assumption reduces to tho the expression with the trace and that this is possible for all such probability distribution but it is not possible to reduce the expression for trace and show it is equal to the probability distribution. Do you have an idea how to do that
Feb 17, 2021 at 7:48 comment added Adam Zalcman I'm not sure I understand... The above calculation shows that the two are equal. Equality is symmetric.
Feb 17, 2021 at 7:43 comment added Shashaank Can I show the opposite, that is the probability distribution can be written as a trace ( not the other way round). The context of the question requires to do just that.
Feb 16, 2021 at 20:44 history edited Adam Zalcman CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 16, 2021 at 20:35 history answered Adam Zalcman CC BY-SA 4.0