4
$\begingroup$

I have seen two similar proofs of the no-cloning theorem. They assume (to the contrary) that there exists a unitary operator $U$ such that $U |\psi\rangle |0 \rangle = | \psi \rangle | \psi \rangle$, For any possible $|\psi\rangle$. The proof does not seem to rule out the case that there exists a specific $U$ that can clone only the specific state $| \psi \rangle$. Discussion of the no-cloning theorem implies that there cannot be a specific $U$, which can only clone a certain state, even when the proof only proves that there cannot be a general $U$ which can clone any state. Is there a proof of this specific case somewhere? Or maybe I am missing something from the original proof.

(I am referencing the one in Nielsen and Chuang which ends with the contradicition that $\langle \psi | \phi \rangle = \langle \psi | \phi \rangle^2$.)

$\endgroup$

2 Answers 2

8
$\begingroup$

The proof does not seem to rule out the case that there exists a specific U that can clone only the specific state |ψ⟩.

That's because you can clone specific states. Cloning is only impossible if the set of possible input states includes a pair of states that are not orthogonal.

For example, here is a circuit that performs $|\psi⟩ \to |\psi⟩|\psi⟩$ as long as $|\psi\rangle$ is promised to be exactly $|0\rangle$ or exactly $|1\rangle$ and never anything else:

just a cnot

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for the reply. I kind of assumed you could already clone $|0 \rangle$ or $|1 \rangle$, what about any other states? A bell state? Is there a list of possible clonable states, and is there anything on that list besides those two. $\endgroup$ Nov 15, 2019 at 22:56
  • $\begingroup$ @abrahimladha As long as the set of states is orthogonal, you can clones items from it. Bell states, superpositions, anything, just has to be orthogonal. $\endgroup$ Nov 16, 2019 at 0:37
  • $\begingroup$ As you say, if you can clone some state, you can clone any state orthogonal state to it, right. But this is under the assumed premise that there is a state you can already clone. We know that $|0\rangle$ is clonable, so is everything orthogonal to it. But if there is there anything else clonable? Right its possible this set contains only $| 0 \rangle, | 1 \rangle$. so those are the only states clonable. To show that a bell state is clonable, we would have to show that a state orthogonal to it is clonable, but this might not be true. $\endgroup$ Nov 16, 2019 at 2:29
  • $\begingroup$ To "clone" a known state like |+> or its orthogonal state like |->, you can prepare the state from |0> with a unitary gate like Hadamard. To "clone" a bell state, you can prepare it directly. This will be a new state identical to the given one and they are disentangled from each other. Of course, one might argue it is not really a clone. $\endgroup$
    – czwang
    Nov 16, 2019 at 6:33
1
$\begingroup$

The real missing keyword in the stating the theorem is "arbitrary unknown state"! If you have some information about $|\psi\rangle$, i.e. specific state, then perhaps you can reconstruct that state!

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.