Quick question on the paper Entanglement in Graph States. On page 14. a definition of a graph state:
Given $|+\rangle=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(|0\rangle + |1\rangle)$. Let $G=(V,E)$ be a graph. The graph state $|G\rangle$ that corresponds to the graph $G$ is the pure state with vector $$|G\rangle = \prod_{\{a,b\}\in E}U_{ab}|+\rangle^{V} $$ where $$U_{ab}|+\rangle^a|+\rangle^b = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(|0\rangle^a|+\rangle^b+|1\rangle^a|-\rangle^b)~~~~~(*)$$ is maximally entangled (Bell state).
Why is (*) stated as being a maximally entangled Bell state, this does not seem to correspond to any of the four maximally entangled Bell states?
Lastly, as an example, on page 37, it states
This is easily seen by applying Hadamard unitaries $H^{V\setminus a}$ to all but one qubit $a$ in the GHZ state, which yields the star graph state with $a$ as the central qubit.
If we start with an empty graph, with vertices representing states $|+\rangle$, then how would Hadamard operations which are local on each qubit site going to produce an entangled state? Why are they not using the above definition, using $U_{ab}|+\rangle$, to define the GHZ state?
Thanks for any assistance.