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The features of major search engines (looking at you, google!) prevent me from searching for an answer to this question, so I will poll the community here.

Is the state $|{\pm} i\rangle$ generally understood to mean $|0\rangle \pm i|1\rangle$, in the same way that $|\pm\rangle$ is generally understood to mean $|0\rangle \pm |1\rangle$, or should I define it in the paper I'm writing ?

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  • $\begingroup$ $\lvert L\rangle$ and $\lvert R\rangle$ are more commonly used to denote $\lvert0\rangle\pm i\lvert1\rangle$ $\endgroup$ – glS Jan 13 at 17:02
  • $\begingroup$ @gIS: perhaps in your corner of the field --- I've never seen that notation before, though I have seen $\lvert \pm i \rangle$. $\endgroup$ – Niel de Beaudrap Jan 15 at 6:29
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I’ve never seen that notation, and would expect to see it defined. Personally, I use circles with clockwise/anti-clockwise arrows, trying to conjure up a visual connection with the idea of circular polarisation. But, again, I’d define it before usage.

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  • $\begingroup$ Given the mixed nature of the response, I think this is the best answer. $\endgroup$ – psitae Jan 18 at 4:11
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I think that most people would understand what you mean, although maybe mentioning they are the eigenstates of $Y$ wouldn't go amiss depending on your target audience.

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