While DaftWullie's answer gives you everything you need to calculate the answer in this particular case, I'd like to focus on a particular approach which is helpful in situations like yours, where you have an $n$ qubit state state$\def\ket#1{\lvert#1\rangle}\def\bra#1{\!\langle#1\rvert}$
$$ \ket{\Psi} = \ket{0}\ket{\alpha} + \ket{1}\ket{\beta}\,,$$
where $\ket{\alpha}$ and $\ket{\beta}$ are not necessarily normalised vectors on $n-1$ qubits. (Notice that at least one of $\ket{\alpha}$ and $\ket{\beta}$ must be sub-normalised in this case if $\ket{\Psi}$ has norm 1.) We can then ask: given such a $\ket{\Psi}$, what distribution do we expect on $\ket{0}$ and $\ket{1}$?
'Normalising' your superpositions
If you had a very slightly different representation for $\ket{\Psi}$, of the form
$$ \ket{\Psi} = u_0 \ket{0}\ket{\alpha'} + u_1 \ket{1}\ket{\beta'}\,,$$
where $\ket{\alpha'}$ and $\ket{\beta'}$ were indeed normalised, then you'd probably be comfortable with this: you'd just recognise that the probability of '0' is $\lvert u_0 \rvert^2$ and the probability of '1' is $\lvert u_1 \rvert^2$. But we can obtain this just by considering the norms of $\ket{\alpha}$ and $\ket{\beta}$, and computing
$$ u_0 = \sqrt{\langle \alpha \vert \alpha \rangle}\,,\qquad u_1 = \sqrt{\langle \beta \vert \beta \rangle} $$
and (if both $u_0$ and $u_1$ are non-zero) defining the normalised versions $\ket{\alpha'} \propto \ket{\alpha}$ and $\ket{\beta'} \propto \ket{\beta}$ by
$$ \ket{\alpha'} = \tfrac{1}{u_0} \ket{\alpha}\,,\qquad\ket{\beta'} = \tfrac{1}{u_1} \ket{\beta}\,. $$
Short-cutting to the measurement probabilities
But actually, the states $\ket{\alpha'}$ and $\ket{\beta'}$ are beside the point: what you actually wanted are $u_0$ and $u_1$, or more precisely,
$$\Pr\!\big[\,0\,\big] = \lvert u_0 \rvert^2 = \langle \alpha \vert \alpha \rangle\,,\qquad \Pr\!\big[\,1\,\big] = \lvert u_1 \rvert^2 = \langle \beta \vert \beta \rangle\,.$$
So you can just compute those inner products without even worrying about representing the state $\ket{\Psi}$ in one particular way or another, and in particular without giving any thought as to whether or which of $\ket{\alpha}$ or $\ket{\beta}$ is normalised.
Example.
In your particular case, you have:
$$ \ket{\alpha} = \frac{1}{2} \bigl( \ket{\psi}\ket{\phi} + \ket{\phi}\ket{\psi} \bigr) , \qquad \ket{\beta} = \frac{1}{2} \bigl( \ket{\psi} \ket{\phi} - \ket{\phi} \ket{\psi} \bigr); $$
then computing the probability of obtaining either '0' or '1' is just a question of computing some inner products, and in particular will give interesting results when $\ket{\psi}$ and $\ket{\phi}$ are either orthogonal (in which case $\ket{\alpha}$ and $\ket{\beta}$ are both clearly maximally entangled, normalisation aside) or parallel (in which case $\ket{\beta}$ is clearly zero).