3
$\begingroup$

From doing numerical simulations, I seem to have the following results : $$ \int d \rho \,\, \text{Tr}(\rho M^\dagger M) = \frac{1}{d} \text{Tr}(M^\dagger M) $$ and $$ \int d \rho \,\, \left|\text{Tr}(\rho M)\right|^2 = \frac{1}{d(d+1)} \left(\text{Tr}(M^\dagger M) + |\text{Tr}(M)|^2 \right) $$

Where $\int d\rho$ is the normalized integral over the density matrices of pure states (Haar distribution) and $M$ a complex matrix.

However I am quite stumped as to how would one prove that ? Do any of you have any insights ?

Cheers and thanks.

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Weingarten calculus. arxiv.org/abs/2109.14890 In essence, it uses that representations of $U^{\otimes N}$ can be decomposed in terms of irreps of the permutation group -- Schur-Weyl duality. $\endgroup$ Dec 20, 2022 at 22:42

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

The first integral can be written as $$\int dU \, \operatorname{tr}(U \rho U^\dagger M^\dagger M) = \operatorname{tr}\left[\left( \int dU\, U\rho U^\dagger \right)M^\dagger M\right],$$ where the integration is performed over the uniform Haar measure in the space of unitaries. You then get the result using the identity $$ \int dU\, UX U^\dagger = \frac{\operatorname{tr}(X) I}{d}$$ for any linear operator $X$, for the special case of $\rho$ pure. This has been discussed and proved multiple times on the site already, see e.g. Density matrices of multiples copies of a single Haar-Random state and links therein.

For the other identity, write the LHS as $$\int dU \operatorname{tr}(U\rho U^\dagger M)^2 = \sum\int dU\, U_{ij} U_{k\ell} \bar U_{mn} \bar U_{pq} \rho_{jn} \rho_{\ell q} M_{mi} M_{pk}$$ where I wrote expliciting the matrix components. Using the formulae to integrate polynomials of the unitary matrices, which you can find e.g. in the Wikipedia page, you have $$ \int_{U_d} dU U_{ij} U_{k\ell} \bar U_{mn} \bar U_{pq}= \frac{1}{d^2-1}\left[ (\delta_{im}\delta_{jn} \delta_{kp}\delta_{\ell q} + \delta_{ip}\delta_{jq} \delta_{km}\delta_{\ell n} ) - \frac1d (\delta_{im} \delta_{jq} \delta_{kp}\delta_{\ell n} +\delta_{ip} \delta_{jn} \delta_{km}\delta_{\ell q}) \right]$$ which contracting the indices should give back your expression.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ I really appreciate your solution. Thank you ! I did see the second equation pop out on the website often, and felt like it must appear in the solution, but as I was not very familiar with the Haar measure, I didn't exactly know how to link $\int d\rho$ and $\int dU$, to which your first equation gives an answer to. So thank you again ! $\endgroup$
    – Denis _J
    Dec 21, 2022 at 10:36

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.