Let's assume that we have an algorithmic problem to solve. This problem takes an integer $n$ as input to describe it and provides as output a bit string providing the answer we are expecting.
For some tasks, such as factoring, quantum computers are expected to provide an exponential advantage, meaning that the best-known classical algorithms required to solve the task will require "exponentially more" operations than the quantum computer as a function of the input $n$ (which in this case is typically the size in bits of the encryption key).
My question is about a precise and rigorous definition of this "exponentially more" operations.
I would expect to say "there is an exponential quantum advantage" if the ratio $N_C(n)/N_Q(n)=\Omega(e^{Poly(n)})$ for $Poly(n)$ some polynome in $n$ (where $N_C(n)$ is the number of classical operations and $N_Q(n)$ the number of quantum operations).
A trivial example is for instance $N_Q(n)=Poly_Q(n)$ and $N_C(n)=e^{Poly_C(n)}$ where $Poly_Q$ and $Poly_C$ are some polynomes in $n$. However the following example would also fall in the same class (and I don't know if people call this "exponential advantage" as well):
$$N_C(n)=e^{n}, N_Q(n)=e^{0.999*n} \Rightarrow N_C(n)/N_Q(n)=e^{0.001 n}$$
My doubts about defining it as an exponential advantage are that (i) both algorithms grow exponentially as a function of the input $n$, (ii) that two very tiny differences in the polynome would still make the quantum computer exponentially more efficient. Finally (iii), I have never seen a classical/quantum comparison in which both algorithms grow exponentially as a function of $n$ (typically the quantum algo is polynomial while the classical is exponential as a function of the input in all the examples that I have seen).
Now, of course, there is some degree of freedom in choosing the input and we can probably always redefine the problem in such a manner that both classical & quantum grow exponentially as a function of "some" parameter. Finally, "tiny" differences grow "big" at infinity so (ii) is not really a valid point. But still, I find this little example a bit "disturbing" and that's why I am not sure if people still call it "exponential advantage".
My questions in summary
- Is there a widely accepted definition of exponential quantum advantage? If so, where is a good reference in which it is written?
- If according to this definition my last example doesn't fit in, why would that be the case (said differently, every definition has a motivation. I would expect my last example to be an exponential advantage but if it appears it doesn't fit the definition I would like to understand what motivates this definition then).
[edit] I actually found a ref in which the definition I used here seems to be used but I don't know if all the community agrees on that. Look at 6mn58s of this video.