After the application of the Hadamard sandwitch along with the intermediate oracle, as explained here,
$\begin{aligned}
\lvert \psi_3 \rangle
& = \frac{1}{2^n}\sum_{x=0}^{2^n-1}(-1)^{f(x)}
\left[ \sum_{y=0}^{2^n-1}(-1)^{x \cdot y}
\vert y \rangle \right] \\
& = \frac{1}{2^n}\sum_{y=0}^{2^n-1}
\left[ \sum_{x=0}^{2^n-1}(-1)^{f(x)}(-1)^{x \cdot y} \right]
\vert y \rangle \\
& = \frac{1}{2^n}
\sum_{x=0}^{2^n-1}(-1)^{f(x)}(-1)^{x \cdot \textbf{0}}
\vert 0 \rangle ^{\otimes n} +
\frac{1}{2^n}\sum_{y=1}^{2^n-1}
\left[ \sum_{x=0}^{2^n-1}(-1)^{f(x)}(-1)^{x \cdot y} \right]
\vert y \rangle \\
& = \frac{1}{2^n}
\sum_{x=0}^{2^n-1}(-1)^{f(x)}
\vert 0 \rangle ^{\otimes n} +
\frac{1}{2^n}\sum_{y=1}^{2^n-1}
\left[ \sum_{x=0}^{2^n-1}(-1)^{f(x)}(-1)^{x \cdot y} \right]
\vert y \rangle
\end{aligned}$
$\implies$ if we measure the first $n$ qubits, the probability of measuring $\vert 0 \rangle ^{\otimes n}$
$\quad \quad = P_{\vert 0 \rangle ^{\otimes n}} = \left\lvert \frac{1}{2^n}\sum_\limits{x=0}^{2^n-1}(-1)^{f(x)} \right\rvert^2$
Now, when the function $f(x)$ is a constant, we have either of two following cases:
- $f(x)=1$, $\forall{x} \in \{0,\ldots, 2^{n}-1\}$
$\implies (-1)^{f(x)}=-1,\;\forall{x} \implies P_{\vert 0 \rangle ^{\otimes n}}=\left\lvert \frac{1}{2^n}\sum_\limits{x=0}^{2^n-1}(-1) \right\rvert^2=\lvert\frac{1}{2^n}.(-2^n)\rvert^2=(-1)^2=1$
- $f(x)=0$, $\forall{x} \in \{0,\ldots, 2^{n}-1\}$
$\implies (-1)^{f(x)}=1,\;\forall{x} \implies P_{\vert 0 \rangle ^{\otimes n}}=\left\lvert \frac{1}{2^n}\sum_\limits{x=0}^{2^n-1}(1) \right\rvert^2=\lvert\frac{1}{2^n}.(2^n)\rvert^2=(1)^2=1$
Hence, whenever the function $f(x)$ is a constant, we measure the first $n$ qubits as $\vert 0 \rangle ^{\otimes n}$ with probability $1$, i.e., $f(x)$ is a constant function if we measure $00\ldots 0$ (all $0$s), otherwise $f(x)$ is a balanced function (by assumption).
Also, arguing in another way, when $f(x)$ is balanced, exactly half of $(-1)^{f(x)}$ values will be $1$ and the rest half will be $-1$, s.t., $\sum_\limits{x=0}^{2^n-1}(-1)^{f(x)}=0$, hence, $P_{\vert 0 \rangle ^{\otimes n}} = \left\lvert \frac{1}{2^n}\sum_\limits{x=0}^{2^n-1}(-1)^{f(x)} \right\rvert^2=0$, i.e., probability of measuring all zeros will be $0$, i.e., measurement will never result in all zeros (will contain at least one $1$ qubit).