Let's consider a two-mode quantum state described in Fock state. A N00N state can be written as $|\psi _{{\text{NOON}}}\rangle ={\frac {|N\rangle _{a}|0\rangle _{b}+e^{{iN\theta }}|{0}\rangle _{a}|{N}\rangle _{b}}{{\sqrt {2}}}},\,$ where the subscript $a$ and $b$ denote two mode. This N00N state is an entangled state defined in Wikipedia, from where I feel the definition of entangled state should be the same as the conventional one, i.e., for the pure state, it cannot be written as the direct product form as $|n_1\rangle_a|n_2\rangle_b$. Then the weird thing happened to me: when we consider $N=1$ case, we have $|\psi\rangle=\frac{|1\rangle _a|0\rangle _b+|0\rangle _a|1\rangle _b}{\sqrt{2}}$, which should be entangled state as the definition I inferred. But this state only has one photon, while entanglement is a correlation between several particles. And the physical meaning of this state is that it has half probability in mode $a$ and has half probability in mode $b$ which sounds more like a coherent state to me.
So my problem is, does the entanglement has the conventional meaning in optical interferometer?