I am reading through this paper which describes the use of a post-processing vector $\vec{c}$ with elements having values of $(-1,0,1)$. In equation 3 they give their solution as a linear combination of the measurement probabilities $\vec{p}$ with the post-processing vector $\vec{c}$. They justify this with the following:
"The measurement results give rise to an outcome probability vector $\vec{p} = (p_1,...,p_l,...)$. The desired output might be one of these probabilities $p_l$, or it might be some simple function of these probabilities. Hence, we allow for some simple classical post-processing of $\vec{p}$ in order to reveal the desired output."
It seems to me that they justify the use of $\vec{c}$ because it corrects the sign of the outcome probabilities. However, I am not satisfied with this explanation. I do believe that it is correct, but can someone provide a better justification for the use of this seemingly arbitrary post-processing method? Additionally, do you think there exists a derivation for how they arrive at the specific post-processing vector? Or, have they arrived at it empirically?