Continuing from my last question that I posted about a paper on Graph States. I have another doubt regarding a possible typo error in the paper. Here it goes. The authors define a 'labeled state' as $$|G_{\vec{l}}\rangle=\bigotimes_{i}X_i^{l_{i1}}Z_i^{l_{i2}}|G'\rangle$$where G is a graph state. Then they define an 'encoded graph state' as $$ |G_{\vec{l}_{*2}}\rangle=\bigotimes_{i}Z_i^{l_{i2}}|G'\rangle $$ and say that the encoded graph state is the labeled graph state with $l_{1i}=0, \forall i$.
Here $\vec{l}_{i*}=(l_{i1},l_{i2})$ for the i-th vertex, $\vec{l}_{*j}=(l_{1j},l_{2j},....l_{nj})$ for the $j$ th bit over all the $n$ vertices, and $\vec{l}=(\vec{l}_{1*}, \vec{l}_{2*},........\vec{l}_{n*}$, each $l_{ij}\in \{0,1\}$.
My question is shouldn't the condition be $l_{i1}=0, \forall i$, because only then the X gate is removed. Can somebody check?
The link for the paper is https://journals.aps.org/pra/abstract/10.1103/PhysRevA.78.042309