0
$\begingroup$

I am reading an article on Quantum Graph states. I wanted to ask a few questions. The Graph state is $$|G\rangle=\prod_{e\in G}CZ |+\rangle^{\otimes n}$$ Now my first question is if I apply the Controlled Z gate say between vertices $a$ and $b$ then do I also apply the Controlled Z between $b$ and $a$. I have done the calculation on 3 qubits with edges between vertices $(1,2)$ and $(1,3)$ with applying CZ between $(1,2)$ and $(1,3)$ and not $(2,1)$ and $(3,1)$. My calculations are $$|G\rangle=\prod_{e\in G}CZ |+\rangle^{\otimes 3}=|000\rangle+|010\rangle+|100\rangle-|110\rangle+|001\rangle+|011\rangle-|101\rangle-|111\rangle$$ Is this correct?

Further, the paper that I am reading said that if I apply the $S$ gate on the first qubit the state is changed to $$|0++\rangle+i|1--\rangle$$ but I am getting $$|0++\rangle-i|1--\rangle$$

The paper that I am reading is https://journals.aps.org/pra/abstract/10.1103/PhysRevA.78.042309.

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ controlled-Z is symmetric. Applying it between $a$ and $b$ is the same as applying it between $b$ and $a$. $\endgroup$
    – DaftWullie
    Jun 22, 2021 at 13:50

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

The calculation in the paper is correct. One of the easiest ways to think about this is that you start all qubits in the $|+\rangle$ state, so $|+++\rangle=(|0\rangle+|1\rangle)|++\rangle)/\sqrt{2}$. Now you've got to co controlled-phase between 1 and 2, and 1 and 3. Let's take qubit 1 to be the control both times (controlled-phase is symmetric, so it doesn't matter which is the control, and which the target). So if qubit 1 is in $|0\rangle$, do nothing. If qubit 1 is in $|1\rangle$, apply $Z$ to the other two qubits. Now, $Z|+\rangle=|-\rangle$, so you get $$ |0++\rangle+|1--\rangle. $$

Now if you apply $S=|0\rangle\langle 0|+i|1\rangle\langle 1|$ to the first qubit, you get $$ |0++\rangle+i|1--\rangle. $$

Also note that in your state $|G\rangle$, the $|111\rangle$ term has the wrong sign - you get two -1 phases because of the (1,2) pair and the (1,3) pair.

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ The gate written in the paper is $S=|0><0| -i|1><1|$ $\endgroup$
    – Upstart
    Jun 22, 2021 at 14:22
  • $\begingroup$ About the sign on $1111$ yes that is a typo $\endgroup$
    – Upstart
    Jun 22, 2021 at 14:24
  • $\begingroup$ Then yes, there's a typo somewhere. I've used the standard definition of $S$. $\endgroup$
    – DaftWullie
    Jun 22, 2021 at 15:24
  • $\begingroup$ Okay thank you. Is it possible to discuss the paper when I have doubts? I will post them as questions on this site. $\endgroup$
    – Upstart
    Jun 22, 2021 at 15:27

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.