5
$\begingroup$

I am reading John Watrous' quantum information theory book. In the proof of Theorem 3.19 (practically the Alberti's theorem on the characterization of the fidelity function) he claims the following fact: given two Hermitian operators $Y_0, Y_1$ on a complex Euclidean space $\mathcal{X}$, the operator $$ \begin{pmatrix} Y_0 & -\mathbb{1} \\ -\mathbb{1} & Y_1 \end{pmatrix} $$ on $\mathcal{X} \oplus \mathcal{X}$ is positive semidefinite if and only if both $Y_0$ and $Y_1$ are positive definite and satisfy $Y_1 \geq Y_0^{-1}$. I do not immediately see how this can be proven. He says that Lemma 3.18 can be used for this purpose, but I still do not get how to link these two results. Someone is willing to help?


For convenience I write here the statement of Lemma 3.18. It says the following: given two positive semidefinite operators $P,Q$ and a linear operator $X$ on $\mathcal{X}$, the operator $$ \begin{pmatrix} P & X \\ X^* & Q \end{pmatrix} $$ on $\mathcal{X} \oplus \mathcal{X}$ is positive semidefinite if and only if there exists an operator $K$ such that $X = \sqrt{P} K \sqrt{Q}$ and $||K|| \leq 1$. Here $^*$ stands for the conjugate transposition and $|| \cdot ||$ is the spectral norm.

$\endgroup$
2
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ The initial statement follows from the Schur complement characterization of block PSD matrices, see the final part of the wiki page. $\endgroup$
    – Rammus
    Jun 15, 2021 at 18:22
  • $\begingroup$ Perfect, thank you, I didn't know about this result. I suppose it can be posted as an answer! However, I still wonder how this fact follows from the Lemma 3.18 cited above. $\endgroup$
    – adabb
    Jun 15, 2021 at 18:47

2 Answers 2

2
$\begingroup$

Firstly, observe that if $Y_0$ were not positive semi-definite, the whole thing cannot be positive semi-definite, because if $|\lambda\rangle$ were an eigenvector of $Y_0$ with negative eigenvalue, then $\left(\begin{array}{c} |\lambda\rangle\\0\end{array}\right)$ would have a negative expectation on the overall operator, and hence there would be a negative eigenvalue, and the operator would not be positive semi-definite.

So, that means $P=Y_0$ and $Q=Y_1$ are both positive semi-definite with $X=-1$, so the Lemma applies. It requires $$ -I=\sqrt{Y_0}K\sqrt{Y_1}. $$ In other words, $$ -1\leq K=-\sqrt{Y_0}^{-1}\sqrt{Y_1}^{-1}\leq 1 $$ So, let's rearrange the first inequality $$ \sqrt{Y_1}\geq\sqrt{Y_0}^{-1}. $$ Since both $Y_0$ and $Y_1$ are positive semi-definite, I can square this, with no ambiguity on the direction of the inequality: $$ Y_1\geq Y_0^{-1}. $$ You probably want to go through this carefully to make sure that the "if and only if" conclusion is valid, but this should give a sense of how you could use stated lemma.

$\endgroup$
9
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for the insight in the first paragraph! I just don't get why you say that $K \geq -\mathbb{1}$. I suppose it comes from the requirement $||K|| \leq 1$, but how? $\endgroup$
    – adabb
    Jun 16, 2021 at 7:49
  • $\begingroup$ Alternatively, we can prove that $||K|| \leq 1$ is equivalent to $Y_0^{-1} \leq Y_1$ in the following way. If $Y_0^{-1} \leq Y_1$ then $||K|| = ||\sqrt{Y_0^{-1}}\sqrt{Y_1^{-1}}|| \leq ||\mathbb{1}|| = 1$. Vice versa, if $||K|| \leq 1$ then $K^* K \leq \mathbb{1}$, which is equivalent to $Y_0^{-1} \leq Y_1$. $\endgroup$
    – adabb
    Jun 16, 2021 at 7:52
  • $\begingroup$ I guess you've pretty much answered your own question there. The reasoning I was using was that $\|K\|\leq 1$ basically means that the absolute value of all eigenvalues is $\leq 1$, i.e. all eigenvalues are bounded between $\pm 1$. You can equivalently write this as $-1\leq K\leq 1$. $\endgroup$
    – DaftWullie
    Jun 16, 2021 at 8:18
  • $\begingroup$ Right, I was missing the fact that our $K$ is Hermitian. $\endgroup$
    – adabb
    Jun 16, 2021 at 8:55
  • $\begingroup$ This answer is on the right track, but there are two problems. First, $K$ may not be Hermitian, and second, squaring is not operator monotone (i.e., $P\leq Q$ does not necessarily imply $P^2\leq Q^2$ for $P,Q\geq 0$). These problems can be fixed at the same time, though: starting from $Y_0^{-1/2} = - K Y_1^{1/2}$, left multiply each side to its adjoint to obtain $Y_0^{-1} = Y_1^{1/2} K^{\ast} K Y_1^{1/2} \leq Y_1$ (using $K^{\ast} K\leq \mathbb{1}$, as adabb has noted in a comment). $\endgroup$ Jun 16, 2021 at 15:14
2
$\begingroup$

Thanks to John Watrous itself, in the comments the following answer emerged. I will call $B$ the block operator defined in the question in terms of $Y_0, Y_1$.

  • Suppose $B \geq 0$. Then, as DaftWullie pointed out in another answer, it must be true that $Y_0 \geq 0$. In fact, if there exists a vector $u \in \mathcal{X}$ such that $u^* Y_0 u < 0$, then we can construct the vector $v = \begin{bmatrix} u \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} \in \mathcal{X} \oplus \mathcal{X}$ and find out that $v^* B v = u^* Y_0 u < 0$, in contradiction with the hypothesis $B \geq 0$. The same reasoning can be applied to say that $Y_1 \geq 0$ as well. By means of the Lemma, there must exist an operator $K$ such that $Y_0^{1/2} K Y_1^{1/2} = -\mathbb{1}$ and $\lVert K \rVert \leq 1$. Note that $\lVert K \rVert \leq 1$ implies $\lVert K^* K \rVert \leq 1$, and since $K^* K$ is Hermitian this means that its largest eigenvalue has modulus bounded by one, i.e. $K^* K \leq \mathbb{1}$. We can now see the following facts. First of all, $Y_0 > 0$ and $Y_1 > 0$, since if they were singular $Y_0^{1/2} K Y_1^{1/2}$ should have been singular too, which is false because it is equal to the nonsingular operator $-\mathbb{1}$. Moreover, if we write $Y_0^{-1/2} = -KY_1^{1/2}$ we can left multiply each side by its adjoint to obtain $Y_0^{-1} = Y_1^{1/2} K^* K Y_1^{1/2} \leq Y_1$.

  • Suppose $Y_0 > 0$, $Y_1 > 0$, and $Y_0^{-1} \leq Y_1$. Let us define $K = -Y_0^{-1/2} Y_1^{-1/2}$. By definition, we have that $Y_0^{1/2} K Y_1^{1/2} = -\mathbb{1}$. Moreover $$ K^* K = Y_1^{-1/2} Y_0^{-1} Y_1^{-1/2} \leq Y_1^{-1/2} Y_1 Y_1^{-1/2} = \mathbb{1} \, . $$ Since $K^* K$ is Hermitian, this implies that $\lVert K^* K \rVert \leq 1$, hence $\lVert K \rVert \leq 1$. By means of the Lemma, we conclude that $B \geq 0$. Alternatively, one can invoke the Löwner-Heinz theorem, according to which the square root is a monotone operation with respect to the Löwner order, that is $Y_0^{-1} \leq Y_1 \Rightarrow Y_0^{-1/2} \leq Y_1^{1/2}$. Since the spectral norm is monotone, we have then $$ \lVert K \rVert = \lVert Y_0^{-1/2} Y_1^{-1/2} \rVert \leq \lVert Y_1^{1/2} Y_1^{-1/2} \rVert = \lVert \mathbb{1} \rVert = 1 \, . $$

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.