Is it possible to translate the above circuit into an equivalent one where the number of interaction gates with the first qubit is 1?
1 Answer
Yes, it is possible.
First, let's recall the bridge-gate, which is
Then now, using this fact, we have that
is equivalent to
which can be simplified to
Therefore,
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$\begingroup$ Thanks a lot! Do you think it might be generalizable to any 3-qubit circuit? $\endgroup$ May 14, 2021 at 17:27