I was checking this problem from a book. And here is an example, but I think it's wrong. If it is not wrong can you please explain how did they derive it?
As per my workout, it should be $1$. But It seems they are doing something fishy here.
Problem 7. The qubit trine is defined by the following states \begin{align*} \lvert \psi_0 \rangle = \lvert 0 \rangle, \quad\lvert \psi_1 \rangle = -\frac{1}{2} \lvert 0 \rangle - \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \lvert 1 \rangle, \quad\lvert \psi_2 \rangle = -\frac{1}{2} \lvert 0 \rangle + \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \lvert 1 \rangle \end{align*} where $\{\lvert 0 \rangle, \lvert 1 \rangle\}$ is an orthonormal basis set. Find \begin{align*} \lvert \langle \psi_0 \lvert \psi_1 \rangle \rvert^2, \quad \lvert \langle \psi_1 \lvert \psi_2 \rangle \rvert^2, \quad \lvert \langle \psi_2 \lvert \psi_0 \rangle \rvert^2. \end{align*}
Solution 7. Using $\langle 0 \lvert 0 \rangle = 1$, $\langle 1 \lvert 1 \rangle = 1$, and $\langle 0 \lvert 1 \rangle = 0$, we find \begin{align*} \lvert \langle \psi_0 \lvert \psi_1 \rangle \rvert^2 = \frac{1}{4}, \quad \lvert \langle \psi_1 \lvert \psi_2 \rangle \rvert^2 = \frac{1}{4}, \quad \lvert \langle \psi_2 \lvert \psi_0 \rangle \rvert^2 = \frac{1}{4}. \end{align*}
To be honest I would be surprised if this book is giving wrong solutions.