I was reading the book by Nielsen & Chuang. I got the part about why we use the density operators. And then I got to the section of theorem 2.6. It says roughly this thing:-

The sets $|{\tilde\psi_i} \rangle$ and $|{\tilde\phi_j} \rangle$generate the same density matrix if and only if $|{\tilde\psi_i} \rangle= u_{i,j} |{\tilde\phi_j} \rangle$, (2.166) where $u_{i,j}$ is a unitary matrix of complex numbers, with indices $i$ and $j$, and we ‘pad’ whichever set of vectors $|{\tilde\psi_i} \rangle$ or $|{\tilde\phi_j} \rangle$ is smaller with additional vectors 0 so that the two sets have the same number of elements.

Ok. I will leave all this tech talk aside and now the main thing is it tries to say is, if I can find two sets of vectors that generate the same density operator, it would be related in some way.

Or if we think a bit more we can say that suppose we find one set of $\phi$ then from that if we apply a group of unitary operators, we can reach another set which will have the same state representation or same state? (Yes state because it will have the same density operator).

Is this why this theorem got a place in this book? I am missing the idea behind this theorem. Alright, this is what I thought but what do you people think?

If you see I am saying something wrong, please correct me.

  • 1
    $\begingroup$ this is pretty much the same statement I prove in the second part of this answer $\endgroup$
    – glS
    Dec 25, 2020 at 23:35

1 Answer 1


The key point is that two different ensembles can give rise to the same density matrix. And, given knowledge of only the density matrix, we cannot assign a unique ensemble to it.

Let's consider a simple example, the density matrix corresponding to the maximally mixed state for a qubit is $\frac{\mathbb{I}}{2}$, which can be expressed via two different ensembles, say, \begin{align} \frac{1}{2} | 0 \rangle \langle 0 | + \frac{1}{2} | 1 \rangle \langle 1 | = \frac{\mathbb{I}}{2} = \frac{1}{2} | + \rangle \langle + | + \frac{1}{2} | - \rangle \langle - | . \end{align}

Should we, then, think of the state $\frac{\mathbb{I}}{2}$ as states $\{ | 0 \rangle, | 1 \rangle \}$ with equal probability or states $\{ | + \rangle, \{ - \} \}$ with equal probability? The point is, we cannot distinguish these two ensembles.

In fact, the maximally mixed state can be written as an equal convex combination of any two orthogonal pure states of the qubit. Therefore, there are infinitely many ensembles that correspond to the density matrix $\frac{\mathbb{I}}{2}$.

How much freedom is there in the choice of these ensembles, this is what Theorem 2.6 talks about; that these sets of states are related via a unitary $\left|\tilde{\psi}_{i}\right\rangle=\sum_{j} u_{i j}\left|\tilde{\varphi}_{j}\right\rangle$, where $u_{ij}$ is a unitary.

  • $\begingroup$ Sounds good. Let's see if there is any other viewpoint. Thanks for answering $\endgroup$
    – user27286
    Dec 9, 2020 at 16:12
  • $\begingroup$ I don't understand this. Any two states related by a unitary will result in the same density matrix, but all quantum state evolution is governed by unitary transformations, so are all quantum states indistinguishable in density matric form? There must be a big flaw in my understanding of quantum mechanics somewhere. $\endgroup$ 11 hours ago

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